Bonus Q&A - Preview (July) - Theology in the Raw

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* Huldah interpreted Scripture for men and was sanctioned by God as a prophet to do so. Does that role for women change in the New Testament?

* Do you see this issue as an agree-to-disagree issue between Christians? How important is it and why?

* Does Phoebe being a letter carrier necessarily mean that she is teaching authoritatively? Isn't Paul the true authority, and she is simply representing him?

* In 1Tim 3:1 Paul says “if anyone desires to be an elder” if he meant only men, why use the Greek word “tis” and not a more descriptive word for male?

* Is it possible to be a mutualist at home but a purely symbolic complementarian in the church on the basis that bishops are representatives of the apostles?

* Elder-exclusive complementarianism is the only form that makes any sense to me, Biblically. What arguments, if any, do you see for stricter forms?

* Does "husband of one wife" in 1 Tim. 3.2;3.12 have to be gender exclusive? Could it be translated as some have suggested as a "one-man" woman?

* Comps: women cant teach/exercise auth. over men because 1 Tim 2.But Priscilla teaching Apollos is to a degree a man submitting to a woman’s teaching. How you understand this?

* In Gen 3 God punished females with subjection to their husbands due to Eve's sin. Is Paul extrapolating this to church leadership positions as well in 1 Tim 2?

* Do we need to read primogeniture into Genesis in order to be faithfully exegeting Genesis 2?

* With so many Hapax Legomena in 1 Timothy, and 8 alone in 1 Timothy 2, why is it so often quoted as “the clearest passage on women” in the New Testament?

* Does Gen. 3:15 indicate that sexism is from Satan, ie., that the enemy specifically targets women? If so, what are the implications for the church/Christians?

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